MBLEX Practice Exam 3 Name Expected Graduation Month/Year Email (Results will be sent here) Phone 1. A practitioner notices the client is walking to the office with a limp in their right hip. The practitioner decides it may be a weakness in the right gluteus medius. What type of assessment has the practitioner just performed? diagnostic prognostic visual palpatory None 2. Which massage therapist is most noted for working with athletes and performing sports massage? Pehr Henrik Ling David Palmer Ida Rolf Benny Vaugn None 3. Which modality would be contraindicated with a diabetic neuropathy? Deep tissue Swedish Craniosacral Reflexology None 4. With which modality is Dr. John Upledger associated? On-site massage Craniosacral Sports massage Rolfing None 5. Which modality would be appropriate for puffiness under the eyes? Hot stone Trager Craniosacral Cold stone None 6. Who is known as the mother of Reflexology? Tiffany Field Dolores Krieger Ida Rolf Eunice Ingham None 7. What massage manipulation is the safest when treating sternocleidomastoid muscle belly? pincer compression flat compression cross fiber friction longitudinal gliding None 8. A client states they are tight in the iliotibial band. What test should the practitioner perform to assess tension there? Thomas Phalens Obers Apleys None 9. A client complains of sciatica and presents with extreme lateral rotation of the hip. What test should the practitioner perform to assess the complaint? Thomas Obers Apleys FAIR None 10. During a visual and palpatory assessment, the practitioner notices the varicose vein on the client’s left leg is inflamed and the leg is swollen. What is the best course of action for the practitioner to take? Perform the massage and avoid the area. Perform the massage and go lightly over the area. Stop the service and refer to primary care physician. Stop the service and call an ambulance. None 11. Who authorizes and regulates most financial aid in massage schools? state massage boards state government federal government certification boards None 12. Which test should the practitioner utilize to assess a client’s shoulder mobility? Adson’s test Apley scratch test Burn’s test Farfan compression test None 13. A practitioner has the client perform the overhead reach test. The client demonstrated difficulty in performing test with right arm bent and it’s painful to press to ear. Which muscle is primarily tight? triceps brachii biceps brachii teres minor infraspinatus None 14. A practitioner would like to test their client for Thoracic Outlet Syndrome. Which test should be performed? Neer Test Lachman Test Roos Test Apgar Test None 15. A practitioner observes a client’s gait and notices they stub their toes slightly at the beginning of the swing phase. What should the practitioner primarily treat to address the observation? A. plantar flexors B. dorsiflexors C. knee extensors D. knee flexors None 16. A client would like the practitioner to obtain information from their primary health care provider who diagnosed their adrenal fatigue. What form is required to complete? informed consent HIPAA policy medical release SOAP document None 17. What specific neurophysiologic principle is occurring when a concentric isotonic contraction of the client’s quadriceps causes their hamstrings to relax? muscle energy technique post-isometric relaxation reciprocal inhibition positional release None 18. The client standing across the room demonstrates their shoulder’s range of motion to the practitioner. What range of motion did the client perform? active active assisted active resisted passive None 19. What neurotransmitter is released during a massage that primarily gives the client the psychological sense of pleasure and addiction? noradrenaline acetylcholine serotonin dopamine None 20. What technique applied to legs would most benefit a client’s legs that have varicose veins and are achy? tapotement compression muscle energy cross fiber friction None 21. The recommended daily intake of dietary fiber for a female practitioner 50 years old or younger is 5g 15g 25g 35g None 22. According to the IRS, a practitioner is not required to report his monthly tips to his employer if total tips for any one month from any one job total less than $20. total tips for any one month from any one job total less than $10. total tips for any one year from any one job total less than $50. total tips for any one year from any one job total less than $100. None 23. According to the IRS, when must a practitioner use the actual cost method to determine travel allowance? when the number of miles driven for business exceeds the average of the total business miles for the coded profession when there is more than one vehicle in use in the business when the number of miles driven for business is less than the average of the total business miles for the coded profession when there is only one vehicle in use in the business None 24. According to the IRS, when may a practitioner declare a deduction for pro bono work? if the pro bono work exceeds three hours of practitioner’s normally charged time always, regardless of time spent doing pro bono work if the pro bono work exceeds ten hours of practitioner’s normally charged time never, regardless of time spent doing pro bono work None 25. Regarding gifts for clients, the IRS allows a deduction of $10 per client per year $20 per client per year $25 per client per year $50 per client per year None 26. Depending on tax bracket, the combined tax rate of Federal, State, and Self-Employment taxes can vary from under 10% to 30% 20% to over 50% under 15% to 30% 30% to over 60% None 27. According to the IRS, a legitimate business expense must meet which of the following guidelines? It must not be necessary. It must be above the business entity’s capitalization threshold. It must not be ordinary. It must be incurred in connection with the operation of business. None 28. What is the minimum number of seconds a practitioner should wash her hands between sessions? 15 seconds 30 seconds 45 seconds 60 seconds None 29. Failure to heed HIPAA regulations regarding repeat violations can result in penalty fees not to exceed $5000 per year per person $10000 per year per person $20000 per year per person $25000 per year per person None 30. A description of best practices and methods to accomplish daily, weekly, and monthly tasks would most likely be found in a client policy manual procedure manual mission statement business plan None 31. Which of the following is an example of elastic cartilage? labra epiglottis menisci disc None 32. For a practitioner to lose one pound per week, how many fewer calories a day must they consume or burn through physical activity? 100 250 350 500 None 33. Which of the following is most likely to be a sign of transference? The client frequently asks you very personal questions. The practitioner introduces the client to other business contacts. There is an exchange of personal anecdotes during a session. The practitioner experiences a repeated desire to make friends with clients. None 34. Which of the following is a most likely to be a sign of countertransference? The client frequently asks you very personal questions. A practitioner introduces the client to other business contacts. There is an exchange of personal anecdotes during a session. The practitioner experiences a repeated desire to make friends with clients. None 35. What is the BEST strategy to prevent sexual misconduct? Speak to a client outside your normal hours to discuss any potential area of concern. Seek emotional support from your clients. Stop the session and take immediate steps to discuss any potential areas of concern. Always accept gifts and tips from clients. None 36. The vast majority of sexual misconduct complaints against healthcare practitioners are filed by male clients against male practitioners. by male clients against female practitioners. by female clients against male practitioners. by female clients against female practitioners. None 37. Self-disclosure refers to disclosure from practitioner to counselor about personal concerns. the exchange of personal information between client and practitioner. disclosure from client to counselor about personal concerns. the exchange of personal information from client to practitioner only. None 38. Which of the following best describes a dual relationship? A male practitioner offers a business card to a female dinner guest at a party. A female practitioner offers her somatic services to a member of her gym. A teacher at a massage school has one of his students babysit on weekends. A student at a massage school follows the lead instructor on his business Facebook page. None 39. When is the practitioner fully accountable for the consequences of participating in a sexual relationship with a client? only when the practitioner initiated the relationship only when the client initiated the relationship never always None 40. Which regulatory method offers the least restrictive form of regulation? certification licensure registration title protection None 41. The tendon reflex is activated by Muscle spindle cells Pacinian corpuscles Ruffini’s end organs Golgi tendon organs None 42. A client arrives for their massage and states they are in the sub-acute stage of pneumonia. What is the most appropriate course of action for the practitioner to take? cupping on the thorax compression on the ribs friction on the intercostals effleurage on the splenii None 43. What is the longest muscle in the body? sartorius plantaris spinalis latissimus None 44. What action do all the muscles of the posterior compartment of the leg perform? dorsiflexion plantarflexion eversion inversion None 45. Which of the following muscles all perform flexion at the humero-ulnar joint? brachialis, biceps brachii and brachioradialis brachialis, coracobrachialis and brachioradialis biceps brachii, triceps brachii and brachioradialis biceps brachii, coracobrachialis and brachioradialis None 46. What is the main neurotransmitter involved in muscle contractions? acetylcholine adenosine triphosphate epinephrine adenosine diphosphate None 47. What type of membrane lines the joint cavities of freely moving joints? cutaneous mucous serous synovial None 48. Which law states a nerve trunk that supplies a joint also supplies the muscles of the joint and the skin over the insertion of such muscles? Arndt’s Davis’ Hilton’s Pfluger’s None 49. Which joint contains meniscus fibrocartilage? tibiofemoral tibiofibular sternocostal sternoclavicular None 50. What degree of sprain is a full rupture and tear of a ligament? first second third fourth None 51. What classification of joint is a tibiofemoral? synarthrotic amphiarthrotic uniarthrotic diarthrotic None 52. What oblique muscles are concentrically contracting during trunk rotation to the right? left internal and left external left internal and right external right internal and right external right internal and left external None 53. Which muscle is antagonistic to triceps brachii in both elbow and shoulder extension? coracobrachialis biceps brachii brachialis brachioradialis None 54. The stretch reflex is activated by: Ruffini’s end organs Golgi tendon organs muscle spindle cells Pacinian corpuscles None 55. The nervous system’s ability to feel your body’s position in space is known as: exteroception spatialception mechanoreception proprioception None 56. The popliteus, plantaris, and soleus are innervated by what nerve? common peroneal femoral tibial obturator None 57. What is the largest nerve in the body? femoral sciatic median vagus None 58. What two nerves bundle together to comprise the sciatic nerve? obturator and fibular obturator and femoral tibial and common peroneal tibial and superior gluteal None 59. What regions of the body contain a kyphotic curve? thoracic and cervical lumbar and pelvic sacral and cervical thoracic and sacral None 60. What type of curve is formed in the cervical region? convex scoliosis lordotic kyphotic None 61. Which of the following is an example of loose connective tissue? muscle blood lymph adipose None 62. What type of connective tissue is periosteum? loose dense cartilaginous osseous None 63. What is the most abundant form of cartilage found in the body? dense fibrous elastic hyaline None 64. What is the most abused class of prescribed medications? opioids stimulants antibiotics antidepressants None 65. Which of the following is considered cryotherapy? ultrasound radiation diathermy 65 degree water plunge None 66. A client presents with ankylosing spondylitis. What is the best way for the practitioner to proceed? Apply friction to the ankles. Focus on joint mobilizations to the spine. Utilize ice packs on the ankles. Perform compression adjacent to the spine. None 67. What neurotransmitter is released during a massage that primarily gives the client a psychological sense of well-being and happiness, and helps them sleep? noradrenaline endorphins serotonin dopamine None 68. What neurotransmitter is released during a massage that primarily gives the client a psychological sense of euphoria and pain reduction? noradrenaline endorphins serotonin dopamine None 69. A client presents with adhesive capsulitis. What is the best way for the practitioner to proceed? Apply friction around the acetabulofemoral joint. Focus on joint mobilizations to the glenohumeral joint. Utilize a heat pack to the glenohumeral joint. Perform compression along the acetabulofemoral joint. None 70. The femoral triangle is an area of caution due to what structure? obturator nerve inguinal nerve inferior vena cave great saphenous vein None 71. Which pathology is damage or impairment of cranial nerve VII? Bell’s Palsy Lou Gehrig’s disease Cushing’s syndrome Asperger syndrome None 72. When a person has AIDS, which of the following body fluids contains enough of the virus to cause infection? tears saliva urine breast milk None 73. A client arrives for their massage and states they have been diagnosed with a Baker cyst. What should the practitioner initially do? Postpone massage until the cyst has been removed. Avoid the wrist during the massage. Refer the client to a dermatologist. Avoid the popliteal fossa during the massage. None 74. What condition is caused by bilateral hyperpronation? genu valgum genu varum scoliosis swayback None 75. What condition creates congenital scoliosis? musculoskeletal imbalances shortness of one leg bilateral imbalances deformed vertebrae None 76. Hot stone therapy is contraindicated for clients with fibromyalgia hypertension hypotension cephalgia None 77. What class of medications is a primary concern for practitioners regarding a client’s perception of pressure? analgesics antiflatulents antidepressants adrenergics None 78. Which of the following occurs during an application of cold hydrotherapy? sedation of the mind elimination through the skin antispasmodic for muscles anesthetic for pain None 79. What type of stretch is applied along the fiber direction of the connective tissues and muscles? latitudinal longitudinal transversal horizontal None 80. Which is the most beneficial for a client’s acute state of rheumatoid arthritis? hot pack ice pack compression traction None 81. What neurophysiologic principle allows a target muscle to be stretched farther than before the contraction of the muscle? muscle energy technique reciprocal inhibition post isometric relaxation active release technique None 82. What occurs to the target muscle when you pull its tendons away from their attachments? It loosens. It strengthens. It stretches. It lengthens. None 83. What specific technique slowly returns a tight muscle to the location of strain, allowing spindle cells to reset? muscle energy active release positional release pulsed energy None 84. What type of range of motion would most benefit a paralyzed client? active active assisted active resisted passive None 85. What muscle should the practitioner primarily treat when they observe a client with an elevated hip? quadratus lumborum gluteus minimus thoracic erector adductor longus None 86. What type of form contains information on the client’s medications? SOAP charting client intake informed consent medical release None 87. Which question best encourages conversation during a client consultation? Have you ever had a professional massage? What is your experience with therapeutic massage? When was your last professional massage? Do you like light, moderate, or deep pressure? None 88. What type of form specifically contains short term and long term goals? client intake informed consent treatment plan medical release None 89. Which of the following best demonstrates a closed ended question? What are your goals for today’s session? Have you ever had a professional massage? Describe any activities that make you feel better. What activities make your pain worse? None 90. Which of the following is the best practice for documenting medical records? Give your interpretation of the outcome of treatment. Use white out to correct informational errors and initial. Document all information at the end of the day. Draw a single line through errors and initial. None 91. Where do you record the practitioner’s recommended client self-care in charting? subjective objective assessment plan None 92. Where do you record any changes that may occur during a massage session? subjective objective assessment plan None 93. Which of the following factors should always influence Scope of Practice? competency familiarity cultural bias psychology None 94. Which of the following would most likely be included in a client policy statement? a client’s specific treatment plan types of services a client’s assessment boundary types None 95. Which of the following is one of the five major interpersonal boundary types? economic energetic egocentric ergonomic None 96. The appropriate intimacy for any therapeutic relationship is two-way intimacy sexual intimacy one-way intimacy physical intimacy None 97. A defense mechanism that often affects communication in a therapeutic setting is repression acting out compartmentalization regression None 98. Therapeutic relationships are often referred to as therapy centered client centered benefit centered practitioner centered None 99. One of the least costly, but most effective marketing tools is direct mail advertisements professional business cards professional informational videos newspaper advertisements None 100. What is the recommended period of time to keep all business receipts? 2 years 5 years 7 years 10 years None Time's up
